According to the Wikipedia article for the etymology of the word "fuck":

it is usually considered to be first attested to around 1475

With this in mind, why the word used in 300: Rise of an Empire (2014), since the timeline of the movie is somewhat earlier than 1475?

  • 13
    Do you really think they spoke English in the first place? – J. Steen Mar 18 '15 at 8:44
  • 4
    ...let alone depict an entirely objective and historically accurate story. – Napoleon Wilson Mar 18 '15 at 9:00
  • Wait, you mean to tell me that the events shown in the "300" documentary weren't accurate and that King Leonidas wasn't a muscular 35-year-old Scottish man? – galacticninja Oct 16 '19 at 7:11

Modern films tend to use modern language. In the same way they don't do the film in ancient Greek (which would be correct) as the way they spoke is different to modern speech patterns, so would make the film more difficult to understand for audiences, especially as it's a fantasy war film.

Some film-makers do try and keep things more authentic (Mel Gibson's Apocalypto in Mayan springs to mind), but that tends to limit the potential at the box office. Most English speaking audiences will favour an English remake over the original in a foreign language, even if the remake is dire.

| improve this answer | |
  • 1
    In addition, I think we can be fairly certain that the ancient Greeks had equivalent words for all the modern definitions and uses of the term. – Yorik Mar 18 '15 at 14:46

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .