During the first film of The Hobbit we see a meeting of the White Council in which Saruman seems unconvinced and even argues against the likelihood that Sauron could be returning.

In The Fellowship of the Ring it becomes apparent that Sauron has corrupted the wizard. When did this seduction begin? Was Saruman already under Sauron's control at this point in The Hobbit?


He does not appear in novel "The Hobbit":

In Jackson's adaptation of the prequel, The Hobbit, Lee reprises his role as Saruman the White, even though Saruman does not appear in the novel. He is shown meeting with Gandalf, Galadriel and Elrond in Rivendell and speaking with them about the mysterious Necromancer encountered by Radagast the Brown, where he tells Gandalf that the Necromancer is just a mortal man and that Radagast is a foolish fellow because of his consumption of mushrooms.

Source: Wikipedia

Even though he is not in the novel, we could try and draw some conclusions from the novels. However, he has a different role there:

Saruman studied in depth the arts of Sauron in order to better oppose him. However, Saruman soon became enamored of Sauron's devices, especially the One Ring. He turned traitor to his mission, and sought power for himself by attempting to find the One Ring. He initially advocated an alliance with Sauron, but he soon betrayed Sauron as well, as his ultimate goal was to supplant Sauron and rule Middle-earth.

Source: LOTR Wikia

So, he never "falls under the thrall of Sauron" in the novels, but rather becomes the victim of his own greed for power.

My final answer to your question on his role in the movies is that we can only try to guess, and my guess would be "yes", not only for his somewhat obvious attempt to undermine Gandalf's warnings about the problem at hand, but also because it hardly makes sense for him to resist the power of Sauron for thousands of years, only to fall under it in the 50 or so years between the events of "The Hobbit" and "The Fellowship of the Ring".

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  • No need to guess, this is definitely answered in the book's appendix: scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/42666/… - and while "under the thrall of Sauron" might be worded too strongly, it is clearly stated that after he began using the Palantir (which did happen in the 50 years between the two stories), Saruman was directly manipulated by Sauron which had not previously been the case. – Michael Borgwardt Jan 13 at 9:44

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