In The Dark Knight Rises, it is stated many times that it's 8 years after the end of The Dark Knight. This personally threw the storyline off for me. Why did it need to be 8 years after? 4 years would have surely been enough time difference for the storyline that played out.
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Christopher Nolan's answer to the 8 year gap is:
He reiterates this in another interview:
The last sentence sounds like he had thought about an even bigger gap, but decided against it because he wanted to avoid 'old people make-up'. |
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While the internal plot-driven reasons in the previous answer make sense, there is another reason why the period was a long one. Nolan's partial inspiration seems to have been the fantastic Frank Miller comic, The Dark Knight Returns (which also inspired the tone of the Tim Burton Batman movies and went some way to revivifying the whole Batman comic franchise) which has a long-retired Batman returning from his retirement due to serious new threats to the city. While the actual plot is very different, there are significant thematic similarities, including the fact that Batman is not as capable as he used to be and is facing a lead villain who is, in many ways, his equal. Much of the thematic similarity just would not have worked if Batman had returned too soon. |
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I think story-wise these things needed to happen:
Whether 4 years would've been enough for all this to happen is debatable IMO, especially for the first part. Laws take a long time to have noticeable effects. So 8 years seemed reasonable to me. |
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