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Is this is a mistake in the book or just a blooper in the film? In the movie Deathly Hallows Part 1 Harry doesn't ever disarm Malfoy he simply snatches the wand. Does that mean Harry is still the owner of the elder wand?

Another thing I noticed is in Deathly Hallow Part 2, Hermione disarms Malfoy in the room of requirement after which Harry saves Malfoy and never disarms him again! So doesn't that mean that the Elder wand belongs to Hermione now? I haven't read the books so I'm a bit confused.

This might be a stupid question for a few of you'll but I really want to understand this, as every time I see the movie I research on it and never get an answer that really explains or satisfies me, especially about when Hermione disarms Malfoy in the Room of Requirement!

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Harry takes Draco Malfoy's hawthorn wand, not the Elder Wand if i am not wrong. –  Ankit Sharma Jul 18 '13 at 10:40
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Question from the same territories, may it help to answer some of your doubts scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/7248/… –  Ankit Sharma Jul 18 '13 at 10:41
    
Rest assured that it isn't so stupid a question (or I'm as stupid as you are ;)), since I didn't really understand this that well either (I once Wikied how it worked, yet don't remember it that well). Still your second paragraph doesn't make much sense, because if Harry disarming Draco happened earlier, then Hermione would have to disarm Harry and not Draco to gain the wand. –  Napoleon Wilson Jul 18 '13 at 10:54
    
@ChristianRau this Elder wond concept is very confusing to me too and every clarification makes me more confuse. There are lots of Scifi question on it. –  Ankit Sharma Jul 18 '13 at 11:00
    
By the time Hermione has disarmed Malfoy in the Room of Requirement, Harry is already the master of the Elder Wand; what happens to Malfoy at this time has no further effect on its loyalty. –  Adam V Aug 12 '13 at 18:06

1 Answer 1

up vote 8 down vote accepted

Ok, I understand why you are confused about this. Please let's first understand how the elder wand works: the wand must be taken from it's owner against their will. This does not mean that it must specifically be disarmed. It can be snatched, summoned, taken after killing, stolen while dueling or any other way of taking the wand against the will of the owner. Grindelwald stole the wand from Gregorovitch, and I guess fired a spell in order to win the allegiance of the wand. Dumbledore won the wand by duelling and defeating Grindelwald. Now, Malfoy disarmed Dumbledore, thereby taking the elder wand away from it's owner without their will. Snape killed Dumbledore, but this was pre-decided. Which means, that even before Dumbledore's death, the elder wand now belonged to Malfoy. So he was the owner of the wand.

Now neither Harry, nor Malfoy ever touched the elder wand, yet became it's owners. So I am guessing here that winning the original wand from its owner would grant you allegiance to all their other wands. So, harry won Malfoy's hawthorn wand. This means he also won any other wand that had their allegiance given to Malfoy, which happened to be the elder wand.

Now it happened several times in due course that Harry was parted with his wand. But it always ended up with him having his wand back. That means Harry's wand was never taken away from him. He always had it, in the moleskin pouch. Therefore, no matter who disarms Malfoy after harry had taken his wand, it would not make any difference to the allegiance of the elder wand. Because it now belongs to Harry. So anyone wanting the elder wand must now win Harry's wand.

I hope it makes things clear to you. I am ready to edit or add to this answer any more doubts you have.

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+1 ... seems like a feasible answer to me :D One of the things left out of the books in the movie was that Harry "healed" his wand with the Elder wand before destroying it. Just one of those things I guess. –  Paulster2 Jul 18 '13 at 16:44
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er... Harry did not destroy the wand(As per the book). He returned it to Dumbledore's tomb. –  kicker86 Jul 18 '13 at 16:51
    
Could be ... my main point was that Harry healed his own wand before giving the Elder wand up ... –  Paulster2 Jul 18 '13 at 17:01
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yes, that is true. He repaired his broke phoeix feather wand and returned the elder wand to dumbledore's tomb. –  kicker86 Jul 19 '13 at 2:18
    
I haven't seen the movies, just read the books, but the way I understood it, you just have to show dominance over the owner of the wand, since IIRC the wand is attracted to power. Malfoy showed dominance by disarming Dumbledore, Harry showed dominance over Malfoy (I don't remember how). Once Harry became the owner of the wand, anyone defeating Malfoy was no longer attractive to the wand, since it was already attracted to someone else. It's not unlike a person who is attracted to power. –  JFA May 7 at 14:11

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